Almost surely statement in Willams book.
In Probability wih Martingales (Willams) I came across the following
proposition
and then they give the following contradictory example
Could someone please explain who it can be so? Also why is that in the
truth set they use $\rightarrow \frac{1}{2}$ and not $= \frac{1}{2}$ when
comparing each out come ?
Thank you.
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